![]() Irenaeus knew that righteous men had seen God in the past:įurthermore, by adopting this approach, Irenaeus' interpretation of John 1:18 harmonized with the rest of the Bible and the qualifications which the Bible provides for those who may see God. ![]() Irenaeus' "unless" (or Joseph's "except") makes all the difference. No man hath seen God at any time except he hath borne record of the Son. Interestingly, Joseph Smith's revision of the Bible agrees with Irenaeus' reading: 180 that this scripture should be read “For "no man," he says, "hath seen God at any time," unless "the only-begotten Son of God, which is in the bosom of the Father, He hath declared. The most commonly used Biblical citation invoked by the critics is probably John 1:18, which reads “No man hath seen God at any time the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.”Įarly Christian author Irenaeus wrote in A.D. If God can say "I change not," ( Malachi 3:6) and he has appeared to mortals in the past, as the Bible bears record, why would he change his tactics and refuse to appear to modern prophets? John 1:18, which the critics use to argue otherwise, has been interpreted differently by early Christians to avoid the self-contradiction which the critics' reading creates for the Bible. However, numerous Biblical verses attest that God has been seen by select humans. Some Christians claim that the Bible teaches that God cannot be seen by mortals, and so claims by Joseph Smith and others to have seen God the Father or Jesus Christ must be false. Question: How could Joseph Smith have seen God if the Bible says that God cannot be seen by mortals? Numerous Biblical verses attest that God has been seen by select humans ![]() Interpreter: A Journal of Mormon Scripture, "Can a Man See God? 1 Timothy 6:16 in Light of Ancient and Modern Revelation".Question: Why did Jesus say “Never have I showed myself unto man whom I have created” to the Brother of Jared, when Enoch and others had already seen Jehovah face to face?. ![]() Question: Does Doctrine and Covenants 84 say that one cannot see God without holding the priesthood?.Question: How could Joseph Smith have seen God if the Bible says that God cannot be seen by mortals?.The most commonly used Biblical citation invoked by those who make this assertion is John 1:18, which reads “No man hath seen God at any time the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.” Summary: It is claimed by some that the Bible teaches that God cannot be seen by mortals, and that therefore claims by Joseph Smith and others to have seen God the Father or Jesus Christ must be false. FAIR Answers Wiki Table of Contents Mormonism and biblical statements that no man has seen God ![]()
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